Answering the Bible Critics - Why Different Words for The Same Texts?
King James Bible critics, who do not believe that ANY Bible in ANY language - including “the” Greek and Hebrew text, which they never identify, often come up with some pretty goofy and poorly thought out objections to the inerrancy of the King James Bible.
One such Bible critic, named Fridolin J., posts: “Let me show you two parallel passages that are almost identical in Greek. But the words that are exactly identical are translated in a different manner in the KJB. It is obvious that you will have to justify the differences by saying: "This is so because God wanted it to be so!". You will never admit a deficiency in the translation.”
He further says: “I admire and love the KJB and use it for my reading. But to declare something that is not perfect to be perfect is giving a false testimony and will be judged at the judgment seat of Christ. You are deceiving people into false thinking”
He then goes on to post two verses - Matthew 5:29 and Luke 12:59 as they stand in the King James Bible.
Matthew 5:26 says - Verily I SAY UNTO thee, Thou shalt BY NO MEANS COME OUT thence, till thou hast paid the uttermost farthing.
αμην λεγω σοι ου μη εξελθης εκειθεν εως αν αποδως τον εσχατον κοδραντην
And Luke 12:59 says - I TELL thee, thou shalt NOT DEPART thence, till thou hast paid the very last mite.
λεγω σοι ου μη εξελθης εκειθεν εως ου και το εσχατον λεπτον αποδως
My Response -
Fridolin J. Sir, there are no difference in meaning at all in the examples you posted between Matthew 5:26 and Luke 12:59. They are called synonyms, Get it?
The KJB translators mention in their Preface to the Reader that they deliberately chose to use many English words that had the same meaning when they did their translation. You can look up virtually any translation in any language (I am fluent in Spanish) and you will see that they all often translated the same Greek or Hebrew word in a variety of ways.
say = tell
thou shalt not = thou shalt by no means
depart = come out
last = uttermost
This is an English TRANSLATION of what the Greek text says, right? Is either one of these a bad translation? Did either one of them use different texts? Are there any errors in either translation?
Even though different words are used in the translation, is the meaning exactly the same? Or is there any significant difference in the meaning of either one?
No, they are both accurate translations of the same text and they both have the same meaning. Do you suppose there just might be "a long-shot chance" that what we see here in the King James Bible is an illustration and an affirmation of the very idea you seem to trying on one level to tell us, and that is that IF the same text is translated with the same meaning into another language using different words, yet if it has the same meaning and uses the same underlying text, then it is the inspired words of God?
Think about it, sir. I think your unfounded criticism of the King James Bible and your possible resentment that God has given his absolute standard in the English language (and not in German or Portuguese) has blinded you to the absolute truth of the King James Bible on many and all levels.
In a related topic, see What About Bibles in Other Languages?
The King James Bible is always right. Get used to it.
All of grace, believing the Book,
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