Another King James Bible Believer

Luke 17:34 - "I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left." 

Steve writes: “I am in a "discussion" (and I use the word loosely) about the King James bible. He quotes this verse:


Luke 17:34 - "I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left." 

 


He says that no other bible translation uses "men". This verse has always been an issue for me. Can anyone help?



Hi Steve. Good question about Luke 17:34. Actually, there ARE reasons why the verse is translated as "two men" in one bed.


I will get into that in a moment.  There are many examples of men sleeping in the same bed throughout history, and it has nothing to do with homosexuality.   Any body ever read Moby Dick, by Herman Melville?


I lived in South America for 6 years and there are a lot of poor people down there.  Large families that live in a one or two room "house", and it is very common for 2 or 3 or 4 people to sleep in the same bed.


Any way, back to "the Greek" In Luke 17:34-36 we have three verses, the first talks about "two men", the second about "two women" and the third (Luke 17:36 about "two men" again.


There is a reason for this.  Both verse 34 and 36 have definite articles that are masculine and definite nouns that are masculine, while the middle verse that speaks of "two women" has two articles and nouns that are feminine.


This is what the three verses look like in Greek.


34 λεγω υμιν ταυτη τη νυκτι εσονται δυο επι κλινης μιας ο εις παραληφθησεται και ο ετερος αφεθησεται


35 δυο εσονται αληθουσαι επι το αυτο η μια παραληφθησεται και η ετερα αφεθησεται


36 δυο εσονται εν τω αγρω ο εις παραληφθησεται και ο ετερος αφεθησεται


In verse 34 we have these clear indicators that we are referring to men ο εις = the one (masculine) and ο ετερος = the other (masculine)


While in verse 35, when referring to two women, we have  η μια = the one (feminine) and  η ετερα = the other (feminine)


And it is not true that ONLY the KJB says "two men", then "two women" and then "two men" again.


So too do Whiston’s N.T. 1745,  Wesley’s N.T. 1755,  Webster’s bible 1833, The Living Oracles 1835, The Pickering N.T. 1840, The Boothroyd Bible 1853,  Notes N.T. 1869,  The Alford N.T. 1870, the Revised Version 1885,  Young’s literal 1898, the ASV 1901, Godbey N.T. 1902, Rotherham’s Emphasized bible 1902, Weymouth N.T. 1902,  Twentieth Century N.T. 1902, Worrell N.T. 1904, The Clarke N.T. 1913, Goodspeed N.T. 1923, Riverside N.T. 1923, the Montgomery N.T. 1924, the James Moffatt N.T. 1926, Williams N.T. 1937, Bible in Basic English 1961,  New Life Version 1969,  Living Bible 1971 J.B. Phillips N.T. 1972, NKJV 1982, KJV 21st Century Version 1994, The Understandable Version 1998, Third Millennium Bible 1998,  The Understandable N.T. 2002, The Pickering New Testament 2005, The Christogenea N.T. 2009, Jubilee Bible 2010, The Hebrew Transliteration Bible 2010, The New European Version 2010, the Modern English Version 2014, The Modern Literal New Testament - “I say to you, There will be two MEN upon one bed in that night; the one will be taken and the other will be left. 17:35Two WOMEN will be grinding at the same place; the one will be taken and the other will be left.17:36There will be two MEN in the field; the one will be taken and the other will be left.”


You can see most of these Bible translations for yourself at this site here-


Free Bible Versions - http://defendinggodsbook.com/free-bibles/


The King James Bible is right, as always, and the Bible agnostics and Bible critics just can't stand it.  

 

All of grace, believing the Book, the King James Holy Bible,

 

Will Kinney,

 

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