Another King James Bible Believer

Bible Blunders in the NASB, NKJV, NIV, Holman, ESV etc.

The NASB

Blunder #1

"They did flatter Him"

Psalms 78 tells us of Israel's rebellion and sin against their God and of his continued compassion towards them. One of the people's many recorded sins is found in v.36: "they did FLATTER him with their mouth, and lied unto him with their tongue." We can flatter God - say all kinds of nice things about him yet not really mean them. God is not fooled by mans false words of adoration.

Charles Spurgeon notes in his Treasury of David, a commentary on the Psalms, - Nevertheless they did flatter him with their mouth, and they lied unto him with their tongues. - "they did but flatter and lie, and play the hypocrites with God...A flatterer, you know, differs from a friend, in that he pretends much kindness, yet wants inward good will, doing it for his own ends...he being a God that knows the heart, to flatter him is the greatest mockery; for that is it which chiefly provoketh men to hate such as dissemble friendship."

Adam Clarke notes: "They promised well, they called him their God, and their fathers' God, and told him how good, and kind, and merciful he had been to them. Thus, their mouth flattered him. And they said that, whatever the Lord their God commanded them to do, they would perform."

Agreeing with the reading found in the King James Bible that the people FLATTERED God are Coverdale 1535, Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, the Revised Version 1881, American Standard Version 1901, the NIV, NKJV, Green's Modern KJV, Darby, the RSV 1952, NRSV 1989 and the 2003 English Standard Version (ESV). But the NASB, as well as the Holman Christian Standard Version, says "they DECEIVED him with their mouth". Notice that the NASB and Holman CSB don't say "they tried to deceive Him" but "they deceived Him". This is completely impossible. God certainly cannot be deceived.

The absurd reading found in the NASB and Holman Standard that people DECEIVED God is a theological error. If we begin to list the atttibutes of God as found in Scripture, we can say that God is holy, God is righteous, God is love, God is light, and if we follow the NASB reading, we would also have to conclude that God is gullible - He can be deceived. Is this the true God of the Bible? I trow not.

Blunder #2

Psalm 10:4 KJB - "God is not in all his thoughts"

Psalm 10:4 describes a wicked man: "The wicked, through the pride of his countenance, will not seek after God; GOD IS NOT IN ALL HIS THOUGHTS."

In other words, in everything this man thinks, God never enters the picture.

John Gill comments: "the sense is, he will not seek to God for counsel or assistance, he will not pray unto him; which is the character of every unregenerate man, (Romans 3:11) ; or, he will not inquire into the will of God, to know what is right or what is wrong, but will do what seems best in his own eyes."

Agreeing with the meaning found in the KJB - "GOD IS NOT IN ALL HIS THOUGHTS" are the NKJV, NIV, Wycliffe 1395 - "God is not in his sight", Coverdale 1535 - "Neither is God before his eyes.", the Great Bible 1540 - "neither is God in all his thoughts", Matthew's Bible 1549 - "neither is God before his eyes.", Bishops' Bible 1568 - "neither is the Lord in all his thoughts",  the Lesser Bible 1853, Rotherham's Emphasized Bible 1902, Lamsa's translation of the Syriac Peshitta 1933 - "There is no God in all his thoughts.", The Word of Yah 1993, the KJV 21st Century 1994, the Third Millennium Bible 1998, Green's Literal 2005 - "God is not in all his schemes.", Hebraic Transliteration Scripture 2010 - "Elohim is not in all his thoughts.", Jubilee Bible 2010 - "GOD IS NOT IN ALL HIS THOUGHTS.", The Holy Scriptures VW Edition 2010 - "God is not in all his schemes.", Conservative Bible 2011 - "God is not in all his thoughts.", Lexham English Bible 2012 - "There is no God in any of his thoughts.", 

The World English Bible 2012 has: “The wicked, in the pride of his face, HAS NO ROOM IN HIS THOUGHTS FOR GOD.” 

The NIV is acceptable with: "In his pride the wicked does not seek him; in all his thoughts there is no room for God."

The Hebrew Names Version also has the right idea with: "The wicked, in the pride of his face, Has no room in his thoughts for God. "  

Dan Wallace’s NET version 2006 is a complete paraphrase, but at least it is not a blatant blunder of impossibility. It says: “The wicked man is so arrogant he always thinks, “God won’t hold me accountable; he doesn’t care.”

 

The Holman Standard doesn't follow the Hebrew text and differs in meaning from all the others, but at least it is not as bad as the NASB, ESV, RV, ASV.

The Holman says: "In all his scheming, the wicked arrogantly thinks: "There is no accountability, since God does not exist."

The Voice 2012 is OK with: “The arrogance of the wicked one keeps him from seeking the True God.  He truly thinks, “There is no God.”

 

But the NASB, RV, ASV, RSV, ESV, Darby, Geneva bible, Jehovah Witness NWT 2013 edition have: "The wicked, in the haughtiness of his countenance, does not seek Him. ALL HIS THOUGHTS ARE, "THERE IS NO GOD."

Now think about what this is saying. ALL his thoughts are "There is no God".

Not even the most dedicated of atheists walks around all day long thinking: "There is no god, there is no god, there is no god." He thinks about a lot of things, but it is an utter impossibility for any living person to go around with this one thought - "THERE IS NO GOD" - repeating itself over and over and over again.

This is an impossible translation BLUNDER, and just one more of many examples that prove these to be inferior bible versions.

 

Blunder #3

"Whatsoever doth make manifest is light"

Ephesians 5:13 says along with the NKJV, NIV, Bishops' Bible, Geneva Bible, Green's MKJV, Darby, and Spanish Reina Valera: "But all things that are reproved are made manifest by the light; for WHATSOEVER DOTH MAKE MANIFEST IS LIGHT."

Geneva Bible 1599 "But all thinges when they are reproued of the light, are manifest: for it is light that maketh all things manifest.

The NIV says: "But everything exposed by the light becomes visible. For it is light that makes everyting visible."

Darby is fine with: "But all things having their true character exposed by the light are made manifest; for that which makes everything manifest is light."

The Holman CSB has: "Everything exposed by the light is made clear, for what makes everything clear is light."

Even the paraphrase called The Message reads: "Rip the cover off those frauds and see how attractive they look in the light of Christ."

In other words, the light of God's truth shows things for what they really are. It tells us what sin and unrighteousness are by exposing them. However, the NASB would have us believe "But all things become visible when they are exposed by the light, FOR EVERYTHING THAT BECOMES VISIBLE IS LIGHT." "Everything that becomes visible is light"???? Does sin when it is revealed become light? Think about it. This is absurd.

Blunder #4

"Regardeth not persons"

Deuteronomy 10: 14-17 "Behold, the heaven and the heaven of heavens is the LORD'S thy God, the earth also, with all that therein is. Only the LORD had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people, as it is this day." Verse 17 "For the LORD thy God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which REGARDETH NOT PERSONS, nor taketh reward."

In this context, God says He chose only the fathers (Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) and their seed to be His people, and not the others. That He "regardeth not persons" means that He does this, not on the basis of their nationality, nor their good moral character (for they were a stiffnecked and rebellious people), but because is was His good pleasure to do so.

The phrase "God is no respecter of persons", or "God regardeth not persons" means that His dealings with a man are not based on outward appearance, position, rank, wealth or nationality. We all, because of our fallen and sinful nature, are guilty of respecting persons. God does not look at the outward face of a man to determine His dealings with anyone. The literal rendering of this phrase "to respect persons" is "to receive the face". It is to look at the outward appearance and make that the basis for your dealing with such a person.

Contrary to our natural ways, God's own sovereign purpose and the pleasure of His will are the only deciding factors in how He deals with His creatures of dust.

Other Bibles that agree with the King James Bible reading of "regardeth not persons" here in Deuteronomy 10:17 are the Revised Version 1881, the ASV of 1901, Coverdale 1535, Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, the 1917 Jewish Pub. Society version, the 1936 Hebrew Pub. Company version, the Hebrew Names Version, Rotherham's Emphasized Bible, Young's, Darby's, Douay-Rheims, Green's Modern KJV, the Spanish versions, Webster's Bible, and the KJV 21st Century version.

However the NKJV, NIV, Holman, RSV, ESV and the NASB have "a God which SHOWS NO PARTIALITY". If God chose Israel to be His people, and not the others, is not this showing partiality?

Deuteronomy 14:1-2 "Ye are the children of the LORD your God...and the LORD hath chosen thee to be a peculiar people unto himself, above all the nations that are upon the earth." Why did not God choose the other nations to be his children and to know his laws? Isn't this showing partiality or favoritism?

For a more detailed study of "respector of persons" see my article at: http://brandplucked.webs.com/2sam14luke24.htm

Blunder # 5

2 Samuel 14:14 - "Neither doth God respect any person"

One verse among the hundreds that have been messed up by the NKJV, NIV, RSV, ESV, Holman and NASB is 2 Samuel 14:14. Here Joab saw that king David's heart was toward his son Absalom. So Joab sends a wise woman to speak to the king. In verse 14 she says: "For we must needs die, and are as water spilt on the ground, which cannot be gathered up again: NEITHER DOTH GOD RESPECT ANY PERSON: yet doth he devise means, that his banished be not expelled from him." In other words, we all must die, whether rich, poor, Jew, Gentile, man or woman, king or servant; God does not look at our social station and on this basis exclude some from death.

Agreeing with the King James reading here are the 1917 Jewish Publication Society of America version, Young's, the Geneva Bible, Webster's Bible, the KJV 21, Third Millenium Bible, and the Spanish Sagradas Escrituras.

  The Bishop's Bible 1568 says: "For we must nedes dye, and are as wather spilt on the ground, which cannot be gathered vp againe: NEITHER DOTH GOD SPARE ANY PERSON, yet doth he appoynt meanes that his banished be not vtterly expelled from him.

The brand new 1998 Complete Jewish Bible says: "For we will all die someday; we'll be like water spilled on the ground that can't be gathered up again; and GOD MAKES NO EXCEPTION FOR ANYONE. The king should think of some way to keep the son he banished from being forever an outcast.

But many bibles, including the NKJV, NIV, ESV, Holman, and NASB have the ridiculous reading of "YET GOD DOES NOT TAKE AWAY LIFE", instead of "neither doth God respect any person". This is a false statement and a direct contradiction of numerous passages of Scripture.

In this very book in chapter 12:15 we read that "the LORD struck the child" of David and Bathsheeba and it died. In 1 Samuel 2:6 we are told "The LORD killeth, and maketh alive: he bringeth down to the grave, and bringeth up", and in Deuteronomy 32:39 God says "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand."

Blunder #6

"Repentance shall be hid from mine eyes"

One of the most beautiful verses in Hosea has been destroyed by several modern versions. In the KJB, RV, ASV , Darby, Geneva, Young, 1917, 1936 Hebrew-English versions, Green's Modern KJV, KJV 21st Century, Webster's 1833 translation, Third Millenium Bible, and the Spanish of 1909 we read in Hosea 13:14 "I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death; O death, I will be thy plagues; O Grave, I will be thy destruction, REPENTANCE shall be hid from mine eyes."

In other words, God has promised to destroy the power of death and He will not change His mind nor alter His purpose. The noun used here comes from the verb that is frequently used in reference to God "repenting" or changing his mind. "And also the Strength of Israel will not lie nor repent: for he is not a man, that he should repent. " 1 Samuel 15:29.

John Gill comments: "repentance shall be hid from mine eyes - that is, the Lord will never repent of his decree of redemption from hell, death, and the grave; nor of the work of it by Christ; nor of the entire destruction of these things; which being once done, will never be repented of nor recalled, but remain so for ever."

Likewise John Wesley notes: "Thus I will destroy death. I will pull down those prison-walls, and bring out all that are confined therein... Repentance shall be hid - I will never, as a man that repenteth, change my word and purpose, saith the Lord. What a glorious promise is this, which is interposed in the midst of all these judgments!"

But instead of "repentance shall be hid from mine eyes", which means God has promised to deliver His people from death, and will not change His purpose, the NKJV has: "I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death. O Death, I will be your plagues! O Grave, I will be your destruction! PITY IS HIDDEN FROM My eyes."

The NIV has: "I WILL HAVE NO COMPASSION", and the NASB "compassion will be hidden from my sight".

Holman CSB - " I will redeem them from death. Death, where are your barbs? Sheol, where is your sting? COMPASSION is hidden from My eyes."

This perverse rendering doesn't fit the context and makes no sense at all.

Blunder #7

Isaiah 2:9 "the great man humbleth himself, therefore forgive them not."

In Isaiah 2:9, God is rebuking his people for having turned away from Him. In verse 8 and 9 He says: "Their land is full of idols; they worship the work of their own hands, that which their own fingers have made; And the mean man (lowly or common man) BOWETH DOWN, and the great man HUMBLETH HIMSELF: THEREFORE forgive them not."

This is the reading of the Jewish translation of 1917, the NKJV, Geneva Bible and several others.

The whole of the people, from the least to the greatest were bowing down and humbling themselves before IDOLS. That is why God would not pardon them, but was going to deliver them to judgment.

Bible commentators like Matthew Henry, Jamieson, Fausset and Brown, and John Wesley all agree that the meaning of verse 9 is that these people were bowing down and humbling themselves before IDOLS and THEREFORE God would not forgive them.

Jamieson, Faussett and Brown - "boweth--namely, to idols. All ranks were idolaters."

Wesley - "The great man - Men of all ranks fall down and worship idols."

John Gill - "And the mean man boweth down, and the great man humbleth himself… Both high and low, rich and poor, bow down unto, humble themselves before, and worship idols made by the hands of men."

There is even a play on words here. As these men had bowed down and humbled themselves before these idols, so God would humble and bow them down in judgment. In verse 11 we read: "The lofty looks of man shall be humbled, and the haughtiness of men shall be bowed down, and the LORD alone shall be exalted in that day."

God reproves those who make false gods and graven images and pray unto them in Isaiah 44:17-20. There in verse 19 we read: "And none considereth in his heart, neither is there knowledge nor understanding to say, I have burned part of it in the fire; yea, also I have baked bread upon the coals thereof; I have roasted flesh, and eaten it: and shall I make the residue thereof an abomination? SHALL I FALL DOWN TO THE STOCK OF A TREE?"

But look at how the NASB reads in Isaiah 2:9. Instead of "the mean man boweth down, and the great man humbleth himself, THEREFORE, forgive them not", the NASB says: " Their land has also been filled with idols; They worship the work of their hands, That which their fingers have made. So the common man HAS BEEN HUMBLED, And the man of importance HAS BEEN ABASED, BUT do not forgive them."

The NASB reads as though the men had been humbled by God, but he prays that in spite of being humbled they will not be forgiven.

The Holman CSB also reads like the NASB - "So humanity is brought low, and man is humbled. Do not forgive them!"

Blunder #8

Isaiah 10:27 "because of the anointing."

In Isaiah 10:24-27 God is telling Israel that though He will send the Assyrian against them to judge them, "yet a very little while, and the indignation shall cease, and mine anger in their destruction." Then God will stir up a scourge for him (the Assyrian), "And it shall come to pass in that day, that his burden shall be taken away from off thy shoulder, and his yoke from off thy neck, and the yoke shall be destroyed because of THE ANOINTING."

"Because of the ANOINTING" is the reading of the KJB, the NKJV, TMB, KJV 21, the Spanish Reina Valera (la unción), the Italian Diodati (unzione), Webster's, Darby, Green's MKJV, and the Geneva Bibles. Here is what some Bible commentators have said regarding this anointing and the meaning of the verse.

John Wesley: Isaiah 10:27 The anointing - Possibly this may be understood of David, who is often mentioned in scripture by the name of God's anointed; and for whose sake, God gave many deliverances to the succeeding kings and ages, as is expressly affirmed, I Kings 11:32. God declares that he would give this very deliverance from the Assyrian, for David's sake. .But the Messiah is principally intended, of whom David was but a type; and who was in a particular manner anointed above his fellows, as is said, Psalms 45:7. For he is the foundation of all the promises and of all the deliverances and mercies granted to God's people in all ages.

1 Kings 11:32 - But he shall have one tribe for my servant David's sake, and for Jerusalem's sake, the city which I have chosen out of all the tribes of Israel

2 Kings 19:34 -For I will defend this city, to save it, for mine own sake, and for my servant David's sake.

Psalm 45:7 -Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

Matthew Henry - because of the anointing, for their sakes who were partakers of the anointing. For David's sake. This is particularly given as the reason why God would defend Jerusalem from Sennacherib Isaiah 37:35 "For I will defend this city to save it for mine own sake, and for my servant David's sake"; For the sake of the Messiah, the Anointed of God, whom God had an eye to in all the deliverances of the Old-Testament church, and hath still an eye to in all the favours he shows to his people. It is for his sake that the yoke is broken, and that we are made free indeed.

Jamieson, Faussett and Brown: - the anointing--namely, "Messiah" (Daniel 9:24). Just as in Isaiah 9:4-6, the "breaking of the yoke of" the enemies' "burden and staff" is attributed to Messiah, "For unto us a child is born," so it is here. MAURER not so well translates, "Because of the fatness".

The NKJV - "It shall come to pass in that day That his burden will be taken away from your shoulder, And his yoke from your neck, And the yoke will be destroyed because of the anointing oil."

Geneva Bible - "and the yoke shalbe destroied because of the anoynting."

But let us now look at what the NASB/NIV/ESV/Holman have come up with.

The NASB, ESV say: "and the yoke will be broken because of FATNESS" and the equally reputable NIV has: "the yoke will be broken BECAUSE YOU HAVE GROWN SO FAT."

Holman CSB - "The yoke will be broken because of HIS FATNESS."

This rendering is silly and destroys the meaning of the verse. Instead of God's people being delivered because of THE ANOINTING, these new versions tell us they will be delivered because they are FAT!

Blunder #9

Galatians 6:4

"rejoicing in himself"

Galatians 6:4 "But let every man prove his own work, and then shall HE HAVE REJOICING in himself alone, and not in another."

"He shall have REJOICING in himself" is the reading of the KJB, NKJV, Tyndale, Geneva, Webster's 1833, KJV 21 and Third Millenium Bible.

One of the silliest blunders in all of modern "scholarship" is found in the NASB, NIV comparing how they have translated this verse to the NASB / NIV's rendering in Galatians 5:26.

The KJB, as well as the RV, ASV, Tyndale, Geneva, and even the Catholic Douay say in Galatians 5:26 "Let us not be DESIROUS OF VAIN GLORY, provoking one another, envying one another."

The NASB says: "Let us NOT BECOME BOASTFUL, challenging one another, envying one another." The NIV (and NKJV too) say: "Let us NOT BECOME CONCEITED, provoking and envying one another."

However, when we get to Galatians 6:4, just 4 verses later, instead of saying "then shall he have rejoicing in himself", the NASB, (and the RSV, ESV) says: "But let each one examine his own work, and THEN HE WILL HAVE REASON FOR BOASTING in regard to himself alone."

Likewise the NIV has: "then HE CAN TAKE PRIDE IN HIMSELF"

The two new versions to come down the pike are the ISV (International Standard Version) and the Holman Christian Standard Bible. The ISV says: "then HE CAN BOAST ABOUT HIS OWN ACCOMPLISHMENTS", while the Holman's has: "then he will have reason for boasting".

How is it that versions like the NASB can tell us in Galatians 5:26 that we should not become BOASTFUL and then turn right around four verses later and tell us how we can have A REASON FOR BOASTING?!?

Blunder #10

I Corinthians 8:4

"An idol is nothing"

1 Corinthians 8:4 "As concerning therefore the eating of those things that are offered in sacrifice unto idols, WE KNOW THAT AN IDOL IS NOTHING IN THE WORLD, and there is none OTHER God but one."

The Greek texts are all the same here, except the Alexandrian texts have omitted the word 'other' in the phrase "none OTHER God but one".

The reading of "AN IDOL IS NOTHING IN THE WORLD" is found in the KJB, NKJV, TMB, KJV 21, NIV, Webster's and many others.

RSV, ESV - "Hence, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that "an idol has no real existence," and that "there is no God but one."

Holman CSB - " we know that "an idol is nothing in the world,"

NIV - "We know that an idol is nothing at all in the world and that there is no God but one."

However there is a definite change in the meaning of the NASB. I think the Catholic church would be pleased with the NASB rendering here. It says: "Therefore concerning the eating of things sacrificed to idols, we know THAT THERE IS NO SUCH THING AS AN IDOL in the world, and that there is no God but one."

Then why are the Old and New Testaments constantly warning against making, worshipping or following after idols? The NASB tells us there is no such thing as an idol in the world.

Blunder #11

In Luke 11:53-54 the Lord Jesus is in the midst of pronouncing woes upon the scribes and Pharisees. "AND AS HE SAID THESE THINGS UNTO THEM, the scribes and the Pharisees began to urge him vehemently, AND TO PROVOKE HIM TO SPEAK OF MANY THINGS: laying wait for him, and seeking to catch something out of his mouth, THAT THEY MIGHT ACCUSE HIM."

This is the reading of the majority of Greek texts, Alexandrinus, which dates to the early fifth century, all the Old Latin copies which predate Vaticanus and Sinaticus, The Syriac Peshitta, Palestinian, Harclean and Curetonian ancient versions, and the Diatessaron which predates Sinaiticus and Vaticanus by about 200 years.

Vaticanus and Sinaticus have a ridiculous reading here which is found in many modern versions like the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV and Holman. Instead of "And as he said these things unto them" the NASB says: "AND WHEN HE LEFT THERE, the scribes and Pharisees began to be very hostile and TO QUESTION HIM CLOSELY on many subjects."

The Holman CSB has: "When He left there, the scribes and the Pharisees began to oppose Him fiercely and to cross-examine Him about many things."

How in the name of common sense can Jesus have just left the place, and then the scribes and Pharisees begin to question Him? The NIV is similar with its: "When JESUS left there, the Pharisees and the teachers of the law began to oppose him fiercely and to beseige him with questions." Again, Jesus is gone, according to NASB, HCSB, and NIV, so how can they begin to beseige him with questions?

In this place not even the Catholic Douay follows Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, but reads as does the King James Bible.

Blunder #12

Deuteronomy 32:5

"Not the spot of His children"

Tremendous error and contradiction have been introduced into this section of Scripture by the NKJV, NIV, RSV, Holman, ESV and NAS “bibles”. This is part of the song of Moses which says in verses 3-5: “I will publish the name of the LORD: ascribe ye greatness unto our God. He is the Rock, his work is perfect; for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he.”

The next verse is where the lies of the modern versions enter. The true Holy Bible says: “They have corrupted themselves, their spot is not the spot of his children: they are a perverse and crooked generation. Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?”

If you look at the context, in the previous chapter God told Moses that the people would enter the promised land and would go a whoring after the gods of the strangers of the land and turn to other gods. God knew this before He brought them into the land, so their entering the land did not depend on their foreseen obedience to the law, but rather because of the covenant of grace made with Abraham.

They are still His children whom He bought (verse 6) , His people and inheritance (verse 9) and verse 19 still refers to them as “his sons and daughters”. They are His children even though disobedient, just as your child is still your child no matter what he does.

John Gill comments: "their spot is not the spot of his children - Christ the rock has "children" given him by his Father, in whose adoption he has a concern, and by whose Spirit they are regenerated: these have their "spots"; by which are meant sins, and by those men are stained and polluted;... by nature they are as others, and while in an unregenerate estate, and indeed after conversion; though they are washed from their sins by the blood of Christ, and are justified by his righteousness, and so without spot, yet in themselves they are not without spots or sins, as their confessions and complaints, and all experience testify."

God’s children did corrupt themselves with strange gods, and the spot or blemish they received belonged to the idolatrous practices of other people, but they are still His children, bought by God and belonging to Him as the rest of the chapter shows.

Now look at the NKJV in verse 5. “They have corrupted themselves: THEY ARE NOT HIS CHILDREN, Because of their blemish.” The NAS is similar with its: “They are not His children because of their defect”. The Holman Standard says: "this is their defect - they are not His children." These versions tell us they are not His children, and then in the very next verse tell us they are His children because He is their Father and He bought them!

The NIV, RSV, and ESV are even worse with: “to their shame THEY ARE NO LONGER HIS CHILDREN”. This teaches the doctrine that one can be a child of God and then lose it and no longer be His child, yet verse 6 and 19 still refer to them as His children!

These are obvious false doctrines and contradictions. Other versions that agree with the KJB in verse 5 as teaching they are still His children are Darby, Youngs, Spanish, Italian Diodati, Hebrew-English of 1917, Daniel Webster’s 1833 translation, the Third Millenium Bible and even the NRSV of 1989. The NRSV says: "yet his degenerate children have dealt falsely with him, a perverse and crooked generation.", but the RSV and ESV tell us they are not His children in this verse, even though twice in the rest of this same chapter God calls them His children. 

Blunder #13 - 1 Corinthians 15:45

1 Corinthians 15:45

Look at this one in the NIV -
God’s word describes Adam as being “made a living soul.” The NIV, however, follows the evolutionary philosophy of the world and changes God’s word to say that Adam “became a living being.” In the NIV man was not created,but instead just “became.” This evolutionary slant fits in nicely with the Roman Catholic teachings.

KJB
And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul. (1 Corinthians 15:45)

NIV
So it is written: “The first man Adam became a living being.” (1 Corinthians 15:45)

Besides promoting or opening the door for Evolution, the NIV translation is just plain ridiculous. It directly implies that the first man Adam was not a "living being" when he first appeared. It omits the idea of Adam being MADE, and doesn't tell us how he got here. But when he was first here, he was not yet a "living being"; He had to "become" a living being. And the word is NOT "being" it is SOUL.
Atheism and evolutionary philosophy teach  that man has no soul. Having a soul implies there is a higher eternal Creator that gave us this soul that will live forever. To say, like the NIV does, that Adam "became a living being"  merely puts Adam on the same level as other living beings (trees,, plants, crops, fish and all other animals on the earth that have no soul. 'Being' means only the state or fact of existing. 'A living soul' implies that man was created in the image of God. There is a big difference.

Satan is indeed subtil, but since he has already gotten away with so much in all these fake bible versions that NOBODY believes are the infallible words of God anyway, now he is getting even more bold in his perversions.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8

 

 

Will Kinney

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Bonehead Blunders in the NASB, NKJV, NIV, Holman, etc.